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Leon S's avatar

I often get lost and zone out on some of the complex science you've written about, but THIS explanation was fantastic Anastassia (plus your comments on complexity). Thank you!

Tomáš Kalisz's avatar

Dear Anastassia,

Thank you very much for the novel post. I have three questions that might be more-less related thereto:

1) In a YouTube presentation

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=L_PJPf6jku8 ,

its author cited a scientific publication and compared reconstructed temporal temperature profile of previous interglacials with temperature profile reconstructed from available proxy data for the Holocene. The older profiles seem to differ from the most recent one - while in the previous interglacials, there was a relatively sharp temperature maximum followed by relatively quick temperature decrease, the Holocene record seems to be more flat.

Different from the authors of the "early Holocene" hypothesis who ascribed this difference to anthropogenic GHG emissions from "land use", the author of the video seems to ascribe this difference to changes in energy fluxes due to biogeophysical effects of deforestation. I tried to check with AI engine Perplexity if someone already expressed this interpretation and obtained a negative answer. May I ask if you and/or the broader "biotic regulation" community have already somewhere published / specifically suggested this alternative explanation, or is the author of that video indeed such an independent thinker?

2) With respect to interglacials, my further question is:

If the terrestrial vegetation during previous interglacials formed large boreal forests, isn't the relatively steep temperature decline after temperature optimum during these interglacials (that seem to be, as mentioned above, different from temperature record after the "Holocene optimum") actually a sign that at least with respect to boreal forests, the terrestrial vegetation during the previous interglacials did not show a pronounced "biotic regulation" of the climate?

Or, in other words, isn't it a hint that if terrestrial vegetation has a stabilization effect on global climate, at least in case of the "orbital forcing" that caused the alternation glacial and interglacial periods, the stabilizing effect has not been strong enough to overcome the forcing and sustain the existing regional ecosystems?

3) Although it appears that at least with respect to "climate sensitivity", climate models somehow equalize all very different forcings to a single number called "effective radiative forcing", e.g. prof. Kleidon seems to expressly emphasize that the Earth climate response to 1 W/m2 change in absorbed shortwave radiation and to 1 W/m2 change in net longwave radiation emitted from the surface differ from each other.

I suppose that if he is correct, the "effective radiative forcing" (ERF) concept might be in fact unjustified, and already this circumstance may represent one of possible causes for the broad spread of climate sensitivities among various models. Are these doubts reasonable or arise rather from my insufficient insight in the topic?

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